Nonsense!
An invasion isn't "partial" if it isn't intended to occupy the whole country. Napoleon invaded Russia: he didn't intend to conquer it, just force it to change its policies & alliances. He invaded Austria with no intention of conquering it. Saddam Hussein didn't intend to conquer Iran (he wasn't that stupid). Bismarck neither wished nor tried to conquer France when he invaded in 1870, & he won the victory he wanted . India successfully invaded Pakistan in 1971, achieving all its war aims & a complete victory - & only occupied about 15% of the country (though it had over half of the population). And so on . . . . . None of these is considered to have been a mere partial invasion.
Remember, I'm qualified to teach this language. I'm being very generous here, giving you free lessons.
Of course not! That's why I used
partial and “invasion”. The Sino-Soviet War
or border conflict, was a “war”, but not an “invasion” (just troops inside another country without invitation); but it was after 1941.
In Georgia, Russia set the trap but Georgia (choosing what words to use) “started the war”, that does not overrides everything else.
Agents provocateurs? There was nothing going on in Donbas? There was no “conflict” in Crimea? There was no “issue” with the Hungarian minority in Ukraine? What about the Russian minority?
(The Catholic minority in NI?).
No, Hungary did not invade Ukraine. (It would have been interesting to see EU/NATO sanctions against Hungary and weapons supplies for Ukraine.) On the other hand, conflicts don't surge by “spontaneous generation”, who fired the first shot does not overrides everything else; it's just politics by other means.
Generous and kindly reminding us about your generosity. And yes, I used "partial" as agent provocateur, I could have used your "overrides" instead. The point was about simplistic storylines.